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CAT 2019 Slot 1 — DILR questions with answers
All 32 questions of the Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning section (24 MCQs, 8 TITA, 8 sets). Try each one, then open its answer and solution.
CAT 2019 Slot 1, timed like the real exam (180 minutes, 60 a section) and scored the CAT way: +3 right, −1 for a wrong MCQ, 0 for a wrong TITA, with the full post-mock analysis. Older official papers are in CATin Pro, with 80+ mocks and the full planner. The last three years of papers are free.
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Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning
CAT 2019 Slot 1 · 60 minutes · +3 for a right answer, −1 for a wrong MCQ, 0 for a wrong TITA
Data set
Set for questions 35–38
A supermarket has to place 12 items (coded A to L) in shelves numbered 1 to 16. Five of these items are types of biscuits, three are types of candies and the rest are types of savouries. Only one item can be kept in a shelf. Items are to be placed such that all items of same type are clustered together with no empty shelf between items of the same type and at least one empty shelf between two different types of items. At most two empty shelves can have consecutive numbers.
The following additional facts are known.
1. A and B are to be placed in consecutively numbered shelves in increasing order.
2. I and J are to be placed in consecutively numbered shelves both higher numbered than the shelves in which A and B are kept.
3. D, E and F are savouries and are to be placed in consecutively numbered shelves in increasing order after all the biscuits and candies.
4. K is to be placed in shelf number 16.
5. L and J are items of the same type, while H is an item of a different type.
6. C is a candy and is to be placed in a shelf preceded by two empty shelves.
7. L is to be placed in a shelf preceded by exactly one empty shelf.
Q35MCQLinear Arrangement
In how many different ways can the items be arranged on the shelves?
- A8
- B4
- C2
- D1
Answer and solution
Answer: (A) 8
With 5 biscuits, 3 candies and 4 savouries on 16 shelves, 4 shelves are empty.
Savouries come after all biscuits and candies, so K, on shelf 16, is the fourth savoury: D, E, F, K fill shelves 13 to 16, and shelf 12 is empty.
C (a candy) has two empty shelves before it and L exactly one, so each starts a different group: L is a biscuit. J matches L, and I sits next to J with no gap, so both are biscuits. H differs from L, so H is a candy. A and B are adjacent, so they share a type; as candies they would make four, so they are biscuits. G is the third candy.
Shelves 1 to 11 hold 8 items and 3 empty shelves. The biscuits run L, A, B, then I and J; the candies run C, then G and H.
Biscuits first: shelf 1 empty; biscuits on 2 to 6; shelves 7, 8 empty; candies on 9 to 11.
Candies first: shelves 1, 2 empty; candies on 3 to 5; shelf 6 empty; biscuits on 7 to 11.

In each layout G and H can swap, and so can I and J:
arrangements, so
in all. Option B (4) counts only one layout.
Hence, option A (8).
Q36MCQLinear Arrangement
Which of the following items is not a type of biscuit?
- AL
- BA
- CB
- DG
Answer and solution
Answer: (D) G
There are 5 biscuits, 3 candies and 4 savouries. D, E and F are savouries, and savouries come after all biscuits and candies, so K, on the last shelf (16), is the fourth savoury. L is therefore a biscuit or a candy.
C, a candy, has two empty shelves before it, while L has exactly one. So each starts a group, and they are of different types: L is a biscuit.
J is the same type as L, so J is a biscuit. I is on the shelf next to J with no empty shelf between them, so I is also a biscuit. H is of a different type from L, so H is a candy.
A and B are on consecutive shelves, so they share a type. As candies they would make four (C, H, A, B), so A and B are biscuits.
The biscuits are L, J, I, A and B, and the candies are C, H and G. Both possible layouts show these types:

Options A, B and C (L, A and B) are all biscuits; G is a candy.
Hence, option D (G).
Q37MCQLinear Arrangement
Which of the following can represent the numbers of the empty shelves in a possible arrangement?
- A1, 7, 11, 12
- B1, 5, 6, 12
- C1, 2, 6, 12
- D1, 2, 8, 12
Answer and solution
Answer: (C) 1, 2, 6, 12
The savouries D, E, F and K fill shelves 13 to 16, so shelf 12 is empty. That leaves 8 items (5 biscuits, 3 candies) and 3 empty shelves on shelves 1 to 11.
The candy group starts with C, which needs two empty shelves before it; the biscuit group starts with L, which needs exactly one.
Candies first: two empty shelves, 3 candies, one empty shelf, 5 biscuits. This uses exactly 11 shelves, so the empty shelves are 1, 2, 6 and 12.
Biscuits first: one empty shelf, 5 biscuits, two empty shelves, 3 candies. Again exactly 11 shelves, so the empty shelves are 1, 7, 8 and 12.

Option C matches the candies-first layout. Option D (1, 2, 8, 12) is the closest trap: it would put the biscuits on 3 to 7, with two empty shelves before L, and the candies on 9 to 11, with only one before C. Options A and B would also leave only one empty shelf before C.
Hence, option C (1, 2, 6, 12).
Q38MCQLinear Arrangement
Which of the following statements is necessarily true?
- AAll biscuits are kept before candies.
- BThere are two empty shelves between the biscuits and the candies.
- CAll candies are kept before biscuits.
- DThere are at least four shelves between items B and C.
Answer and solution
Answer: (D) There are at least four shelves between items B and C.
The savouries D, E, F and K fill shelves 13 to 16. The biscuits are L, A, B, I and J, and the candies C, G and H. C opens the candy group (two empty shelves before it), and L opens the biscuit group (one empty shelf before it), followed by A, B and then I, J. Only two layouts fit.
Candies first: shelves 1, 2 empty; candies on 3 to 5 with C on 3; shelf 6 empty; biscuits on 7 to 11 with B on 9.
Biscuits first: shelf 1 empty; biscuits on 2 to 6 with B on 4; shelves 7, 8 empty; candies on 9 to 11 with C on 9.

Between B and C lie 5 shelves (4 to 8) in the first layout and 4 shelves (5 to 8) in the second, so there are always at least four. Option D is necessarily true.
Options A and C each hold in only one layout. Option B fails in the candies-first layout, where only shelf 6 separates the two groups.
Hence, option D (There are at least four shelves between items B and C.).
Data set
Set for questions 39–42
Six players - Tanzi, Umeza, Wangdu, Xyla, Yonita and Zeneca competed in an archery tournament. The tournament had three compulsory rounds, Rounds 1 to 3.
In each round every player shot an arrow at a target. Hitting the centre of the target (called bull’s eye) fetched the highest score of 5. The only other possible scores that a player could achieve were 4, 3, 2 and 1. Every bull’s eye score in the first three rounds gave a player one additional chance to shoot in the bonus rounds, Rounds 4 to 6. The possible scores in Rounds 4 to 6 were identical to the first three.
A player’s total score in the tournament was the sum of his/her scores in all rounds played by him/her. The table below presents partial information on points scored by the players after completion of the tournament. In the table, NP means that the player did not participate in that round, while a hyphen means that the player participated in that round and the score information is missing.
The following facts are also known.
1.Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita had the same total score.
2.Total scores for all players, except one, were in multiples of three.
3.The highest total score was one more than double of the lowest total score.
4.The number of players hitting bull’s eye in Round 2 was double of that in Round 3.
5.Tanzi and Zeneca had the same score in Round 1 but different scores in Round 3.

Q39MCQMissing Value Tables
What was the highest total score?
- A25
- B21
- C24
- D23
Answer and solution
Answer: (A) 25
Each bull's eye in Rounds 1–3 earns one bonus round, so the table shows how many each player hit there: Xyla three, Umeza and Zeneca two, Tanzi and Yonita one, Wangdu none.
Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita total
,
and
, where
are their non-5 scores in Rounds 1–3. Fact 1 makes these totals equal, so the common total is between 15 and 17. Fact 2 allows only one total that is not a multiple of 3, so all three are 15.
Xyla scored 5 in each of Rounds 1–3, so she totals
, between 22 and 26. Zeneca totals
with
, at most 24. Wangdu scored at most 4 in each of his three rounds, so at most 12, the lowest.
By fact 3 the highest total is
, with
Wangdu's total: odd and at least 22, so 23 (
) or 25 (
). With 23 and 11, two totals would not be multiples of 3, breaking fact 2. So the highest total is 25.

This rules out 24, which is even, and 23.
Hence, option A (25).
Q40MCQMissing Value Tables
What was Zeneca's total score?
- A21
- B22
- C23
- D24
Answer and solution
Answer: (D) 24
Bonus rounds played count bull's eyes in Rounds 1–3: Xyla three, Umeza and Zeneca two, Tanzi and Yonita one, Wangdu none.
Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita total
,
,
(non-5 scores
). By fact 1 these are equal, hence 15 to 17; fact 2 allows only one non-multiple of 3, so all are 15 and
.
Fact 5: a 1 for Tanzi in Round 1 would give Zeneca a 1 there and both a 5 in Round 3. So both scored 5 in Round 1, and Tanzi 1 in Round 3.
Fact 4: Tanzi and Wangdu scored 4 in Round 2, so it has at most four bull's eyes and Round 3 one or two. With one (Xyla's), Umeza and Zeneca would both hit 5 in Round 2: three. So Round 2 has four, Zeneca's included, and her Round 3 score is neither 5 nor 1: she totals 22 to 24.
Fact 3: the top total is
, where
is Wangdu's (lowest) total. Xyla has at least
, so the top is 23 or 25; 23 with
breaks fact 2. So Xyla has 25, the one non-multiple of 3, and Zeneca, a multiple of 3, has 24.

Option A (21) needs Zeneca's Round 3 to be 1, ruled out above.
Hence, option D (24).
Q41MCQMissing Value Tables
Which of the following statements is true?
- AXyla’s score was 23.
- BZeneca’s score was 23.
- CZeneca was the highest scorer.
- DXyla was the highest scorer.
Answer and solution
Answer: (D) Xyla was the highest scorer.
Each bull's eye in Rounds 1–3 earns one bonus round, so the table shows how many each player hit there: Xyla three, Umeza and Zeneca two, Tanzi and Yonita one, Wangdu none.
Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita total
,
and
, where
are their non-5 scores in Rounds 1–3. Fact 1 makes these totals equal, so the common total is between 15 and 17. Fact 2 allows only one total that is not a multiple of 3, so all three are 15.
Xyla scored 5 in each of Rounds 1–3, so she totals
, between 22 and 26. Zeneca totals
with
, at most 24. Wangdu scored at most 4 in each of his three rounds, so at most 12, the lowest.
By fact 3 the highest total is
, with
Wangdu's total: odd and at least 22, so 23 (
) or 25 (
). With 23 and 11, two totals would not be multiples of 3, breaking fact 2. So the highest total is 25.

Only Xyla can reach 25, so she, not Zeneca, was the highest scorer. As 25 is the one total that is not a multiple of 3, no one scored 23.
Hence, option D (Xyla was the highest scorer.).
Q42MCQMissing Value Tables
What was Tanzi's score in Round 3?
- A4
- B5
- C3
- D1
Answer and solution
Answer: (D) 1
Each bull's eye in Rounds 1–3 earns one bonus round. Tanzi's only bonus round was Round 4, so she hit exactly one bull's eye in Rounds 1–3; Umeza and Zeneca hit two each, and Yonita one.
Tanzi scored 4 in Round 2, so her Rounds 1 and 3 are a 5 and some
, and she totals
. Umeza totals
and Yonita
, where
are their non-5 scores. Fact 1 gives
, so the common total is between 15 and 17. Fact 2 allows only one total that is not a multiple of 3, so these three equal totals are 15 and
.
Fact 5: Tanzi and Zeneca match in Round 1 but differ in Round 3. If Tanzi's Round 1 score were 1, Zeneca's would be too, so Zeneca's two 5s would fall in Rounds 2 and 3, and both would score 5 in Round 3. So Tanzi scored 5 in Round 1 and 1 in Round 3.

A 5 in Round 3 would be a second bull's eye, and 3 or 4 would take her total past 15.
Hence, option D (1).
Data set
Set for questions 43–46
The following table represents addition of two six-digit numbers given in the first and the second rows, while the sum is given in the third row. In the representation, each of the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 has been coded with one letter among A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, J, K, with distinct letters representing distinct digits.

Q43TITA
Which digit does the letter A represent?
Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.
Answer and solution
Answer: 1
Label the places from the right: units, tens, hundreds, thousands, ten-thousands, lakhs.
Units:
ends in
, which happens only for
. So
, with no carry.
The sum has seven digits while each number added has six, so the sum's leftmost digit,
, is the carry out of the lakhs column. That column adds two digits and at most a carry of 1, so its total is at most
and the carry is 1.
So
(it cannot be 0, which is
).

This fits the rest of the sum: the tens column
must then end in 1, and since 0 and 1 are already used,
.
The answer is 1.
Q44TITA
Which digit does the letter B represent?
Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.
Answer and solution
Answer: 9
Label the places from the right: units, tens, hundreds, thousands, ten-thousands, lakhs.
Units:
ends in
, so
. The sum has a seventh digit,
, which can only be a carry of 1, so
.
Ten-thousands:
plus a carry of 0 or 1 ends in
. As
, this total is 10. Since
is even, the carry is 0, so
and 1 is carried into the lakhs.
Lakhs:
must end in
and carry 1 into the seventh place. So
and
.
Completing the other columns gives three possible sums, and
in each:

The answer is 9.
Q45TITA
Which among the digits 3, 4, 6 and 7 cannot be represented by the letter D?
Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.
Answer and solution
Answer: 7
Label the places from the right: units, tens, hundreds, thousands, ten-thousands, lakhs.
Units:
ends in
, so
. The sum's seventh digit
is a carry, so
.
Tens:
ends in 1 and cannot equal 1 (0 and 1 are taken), so
, carrying 1. Hundreds:
, so
. Thousands:
(a carry would make
). Ten-thousands:
ends in 0, so
; the lakhs then give
.
The unused digits are 3, 4, 6, 7 and 8. With
and
:
,
,
leaves 4 and 6 for
and
;
,
,
leaves 6 and 8;
,
,
leaves 3 and 8;
fails, as
would be 2, which is
;
fails, as
would be 5, which is
.

So
can be 3, 4, 6 or 8, but never 7, which is always
,
or
.
The answer is 7.
Q46TITA
Which among the digits 4, 6, 7 and 8 cannot be represented by the letter G?
Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.
Answer and solution
Answer: 6
The sum of two six-digit numbers is less than 2,000,000, so its extra leading digit is
.
Units column:
ends in
, so
.
Hundred-thousands column:
, so
. This forces
, with a carry of 1 from the H column.
H column: it shows
and carries 1, so
. As
is even, that carry is 0 and
.
Hundreds column:
and
, so the carry is 1,
, and nothing carries onward.
Thousands column:
, so
.
Tens column:
, giving digit
and the carry into the hundreds.
The unused digits are 3, 4, 6, 7 and 8; pairs adding to 11 are 3 and 8, and 4 and 7.
needs
, impossible.
, 7 and 4 all work, with
and
:
would need
, so G can never be 6.
The answer is 6.
Data set
Set for questions 47–50
Five vendors are being considered for a service. The evaluation committee evaluated each vendor on six aspects - Cost, Customer Service,Features, Quality, Reach, and Reliability. Each of these evaluations are on a scale of 0 (worst) to 100 (perfect). The evaluation scores on these aspects are shown in the radar chart. For example, Vendor 1 obtains a score of 52 on Reliability, Vendor 2 obtains a score of 45 on Features and Vendor 3 obtains a score of 90 on Cost.

Q47MCQRadar & Special Graphs
On which aspect is the median score of the five vendors the least?
- ACustomer Service
- BCost
- CReliability
- DQuality
Answer and solution
Answer: (A) Customer Service
Reading the chart (the scores are approximate), sort each aspect's five scores; the median is the third value.
Customer Service: 28, 41, 50, 55, 70, so the median is 50.
Reliability: 26, 40, 52, 60, 75, so 52.
Features: 40, 45, 56, 75, 90, so 56.
Quality: 40, 48, 62, 69, 72, so 62.
Reach: 46, 58, 63, 70, 80, so 63.
Cost: 50, 71, 77, 81, 90, so 77.
Customer Service has the lowest median. Its closest rival, Reliability (option C), has median 52, which is Vendor 1's score as stated in the passage; the Customer Service median, Vendor 3's score, is only about 50.
Hence, option A (Customer Service).
Q48MCQRadar & Special Graphs
A vendor's final score is the average of their scores on all six aspects. Which vendor has the highest final score?
- AVendor 4
- BVendor 2
- CVendor 1
- DVendor 3
Answer and solution
Answer: (D) Vendor 3
Every vendor is averaged over the same six aspects, so the highest average belongs to the highest total. Approximate chart readings, in the order Reliability, Reach, Quality, Features, Customer Service, Cost:
Vendor 1:
Vendor 2:
Vendor 3:
Vendor 4:
Vendor 5:
Vendor 3 has the highest total, an average of
. The nearest rival, Vendor 1 (average about 62.7), is 20 points behind in total, far more than any reading error.
Hence, option D (Vendor 3).
Q49MCQRadar & Special Graphs
List of all the vendors who are among the top two scorers on the maximum number of aspects is:
- AVendor 2, Vendor 3 and Vendor 4
- BVendor 1 and Vendor 5
- CVendor 2 and Vendor 5
- DVendor 1 and Vendor 2
Answer and solution
Answer: (B) Vendor 1 and Vendor 5
The radar chart's scores, read approximately, are in this table:

The top two vendors on each aspect:
Reliability: Vendor 3 (75), Vendor 5 (60).
Reach: Vendor 1 (80), Vendor 5 (70).
Quality: Vendor 1 (72), Vendor 2 (69).
Features: Vendor 4 (90), Vendor 5 (75).
Customer Service: Vendor 4 (70), Vendor 1 (55).
Cost: Vendor 3 (90), Vendor 2 (81).
Counting appearances: Vendor 1 three times (Reach, Quality, Customer Service), Vendor 5 three times (Reliability, Reach, Features), and Vendors 2, 3 and 4 twice each.
The maximum, three, is reached only by Vendors 1 and 5. Options C and D fail because Vendor 2 is in the top two only twice, and option A lists three vendors who appear only twice each.
Hence, option B (Vendor 1 and Vendor 5).
Q50MCQRadar & Special Graphs
List of all the vendors who are among the top three vendors on all six aspects is:
- AVendor 1 and Vendor 3
- BNone of the Vendors
- CVendor 3
- DVendor 1
Answer and solution
Answer: (C) Vendor 3
The radar chart's scores, read approximately, are in this table:

The top three vendors on each aspect:
Reliability: Vendors 3 (75), 5 (60), 1 (52).
Reach: Vendors 1 (80), 5 (70), 3 (63).
Quality: Vendors 1 (72), 2 (69), 3 (62).
Features: Vendors 4 (90), 5 (75), 3 (56).
Customer Service: Vendors 4 (70), 1 (55), 3 (50).
Cost: Vendors 3 (90), 2 (81), 1 (77).
Vendor 3 is in all six lists. Vendor 1 is in five but misses Features, where its score of about 40 is the lowest of all five vendors, so options A and D fail. Vendor 5 misses three aspects and Vendors 2 and 4 miss four each, so option B fails too.
Hence, option C (Vendor 3).
Data set
Set for questions 51–54
The Ministry of Home Affairs is analysing crimes committed by foreigners in different states and union territories (UT) of India. All cases refer to the ones registered against foreigners in 2016.
The number of cases - classified into three categories: IPC crimes, SLL crimes and other crimes - for nine states/UTs are shown in the figure below. These nine belong to the top ten states/UTs in terms of the total number of cases registered. The remaining state (among top ten) is West Bengal, where all the 520 cases registered were SLL crimes.
The table below shows the ranks of the ten states/UTs mentioned above among ALL states/UTs of India in terms of the number of cases registered in each of the three category of crimes. A state/UT is given rank r for a category of crimes if there are (r‐1) states/UTs having a larger number of cases registered in that category of crimes. For example, if two states have the same number of cases in a category, and exactly three other states/UTs have larger numbers of cases registered in the same category, then both the states are given rank 4 in that category. Missing ranks in the table are denoted by *.

Q51TITABar & Line Charts
What is the rank of Kerala in the ‘IPC crimes’ category?
Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.
Answer and solution
Answer: 5
The chart's counts, read approximately, are in this table:

IPC cases: Delhi 64, Goa 26, Karnataka 16, Maharashtra 16, Kerala 8, Telangana 4, and fewer for Haryana, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry and West Bengal.
The rank table gives Telangana rank 6 in IPC crimes, so exactly five states/UTs have more IPC cases than Telangana. Delhi, Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Kerala all do, so they are those five, and no state outside the chart is above Telangana.
Hence exactly four states (Delhi, Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra) have more IPC cases than Kerala, and Kerala's rank is
. This fits the table: Karnataka and Maharashtra share rank 3 behind Delhi and Goa, so rank 4 is skipped.
The answer is 5.
Q52MCQBar & Line Charts
In the two states where the highest total number of cases are registered, the ratio of the total number of cases in IPC crimes to the total number in SLL
crimes is closest to
- A3 : 2
- B19 : 20
- C11 : 10
- D1 : 9
Answer and solution
Answer: (D) 1 : 9
The chart's counts, read approximately, are in this table:

The two states with the most cases are West Bengal (520, all of them SLL crimes) and Delhi (about 142); the next, Karnataka, has only about 91.
IPC cases: West Bengal 0 + Delhi about 64 = about 64.
SLL cases: West Bengal 520 + Delhi about 35 = about 555.
The ratio is about
, and
is the closest option.
The other options, 3 : 2, 19 : 20 and 11 : 10, are all near or above 1, which would need about as many IPC cases as SLL cases. Here SLL cases outnumber IPC cases about nine to one.
Hence, option D (1 : 9).
Q53MCQBar & Line Charts
Which of the following is DEFINITELY true about the ranks of states/UT in the ‘other crimes’ category?
i) Tamil Nadu: 2
ii) Puducherry: 3
- Aboth i) and ii)
- Bonly ii)
- Cneither i) , nor ii)
- Donly i)
Answer and solution
Answer: (A) both i) and ii)
The chart's counts, read approximately, are in this table:

'Other crimes' counts: Delhi 43, Tamil Nadu 35, Puducherry 30, Karnataka 26, Goa 19, and fewer for the rest of the ten.
Every state outside the top ten has no more cases in total than Telangana, about 25, so none of them can have more than about 25 other-crime cases.
So only Delhi has more other-crime cases than Tamil Nadu, giving Tamil Nadu rank 2, and only Delhi and Tamil Nadu have more than Puducherry, giving Puducherry rank 3. Both statements are definitely true.
Option D (only i) would need some state to overtake Puducherry's 30, but every state not already above it has at most about 26.
Hence, option A (both i) and ii)).
Q54TITABar & Line Charts
What is the sum of the ranks of Delhi in the three categories of crimes?
Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.
Answer and solution
Answer: 5
The chart's counts, read approximately, are in this table:

Delhi has about 64 IPC, 35 SLL and 43 other-crime cases. States outside the top ten have no more cases in total than Telangana (about 25).
IPC: no other state comes close to Delhi's 64 (Goa is next with about 26), so Delhi's rank is 1.
Other crimes: Delhi's 43 is again the most (Tamil Nadu is next with about 35), so its rank is 1.
SLL: West Bengal (520) and Karnataka (rank 2 in the table) are ahead of Delhi. Goa and Maharashtra, with about the same count as Delhi, have rank 4, so exactly three states have more SLL cases than they do: West Bengal, Karnataka and one more. Every other state has at most about 26, so the third must be Delhi, whose rank is 3.
Sum of ranks
.
The answer is 5.
Data set
Set for questions 55–58
The figure below shows the street map for a certain region with the street intersections marked from a through l. A person standing at an intersection can see along straight lines to other intersections that are in her line of sight and all other people standing at these intersections. For example, a person standing at intersection g can see all people standing at intersections b, c, e, f, h, and k. In particular, the person standing at intersection g can see the person standing at intersection e irrespective of whether there is a person standing at intersection f.
Six people U, V, W, X, Y, and Z, are standing at different intersections. No two people are standing at the same intersection.
The following additional facts are known.
1. X, U, and Z are standing at the three corners of a triangle formed by three street segments.
2. X can see only U and Z.
3. Y can see only U and W.
4. U sees V standing in the next intersection behind Z.
5. W cannot see V or Z.
6. No one among the six is standing at intersection d.

Q55MCQNetworks & Routes
Who is standing at intersection a?
- AW
- BY
- CNo one
- DV
Answer and solution
Answer: (C) No one
By fact 1, X, U and Z fill triangle b–f–g or b–c–g; by fact 2, no one else stands where X can see. Fact 4 needs an intersection just beyond Z on line UZ, other than the barred d, leaving five placements:
1. U=b, Z=f, V=j, X=g: W, seeing neither f nor j, is at a; Y, seeing a and b, is at c (seen by X) or the barred d. Fails.
2. U=c, Z=b, V=a, X=g, and 3. U=c, Z=g, V=k, X=b: apart from d, every free spot that sees c is in X's view, so Y cannot see U. Fails.
4. U=f, Z=g, V=h, X=b: W, seeing neither g nor h, is at i; Y, seeing f and i, is at e (also sees Z) or j (seen by X). Fails.
5. U=g, Z=f, V=e, X=b: Y sees g from a spot hidden from X, so h or k; h also sees Z, so Y=k. W is seen by Y: c and j are seen by X and i sees V, so W=l.
Only placement 5 works:

No one stands at a: X at b sees a, so it stays empty. V was at a only in rejected placement 2, so option D fails.
Hence, option C (No one).
Q56MCQNetworks & Routes
Who can V see?
- AZ only
- BU, W and Z only
- CU and Z only
- DU only
Answer and solution
Answer: (C) U and Z only
By fact 1, X, U and Z fill triangle b–f–g or b–c–g; by fact 2, no one else stands where X can see. Fact 4 needs an intersection just beyond Z on line UZ, other than the barred d, leaving five placements:
1. U=b, Z=f, V=j, X=g: W, seeing neither f nor j, is at a; Y, seeing a and b, is at c (seen by X) or the barred d. Fails.
2. U=c, Z=b, V=a, X=g, and 3. U=c, Z=g, V=k, X=b: apart from d, every free spot that sees c is in X's view, so Y cannot see U. Fails.
4. U=f, Z=g, V=h, X=b: W, seeing neither g nor h, is at i; Y, seeing f and i, is at e (also sees Z) or j (seen by X). Fails.
5. U=g, Z=f, V=e, X=b: Y sees g from a spot hidden from X, so h or k; h also sees Z, so Y=k. W is seen by Y: c and j are seen by X and i sees V, so W=l.
Only placement 5 works:

V at e sees along row a–e–i (both empty) and column e–f–g–h: Z at f and U at g. W at l is on neither street, so option B fails.
Hence, option C (U and Z only).
Q57MCQNetworks & Routes
What is the minimum number of street segments that X must cross to reach Y?
- A1
- B4
- C2
- D3
Answer and solution
Answer: (C) 2
By fact 1, X, U and Z fill triangle b–f–g or b–c–g; by fact 2, no one else stands where X can see. Fact 4 needs an intersection just beyond Z on line UZ, other than the barred d, leaving five placements:
1. U=b, Z=f, V=j, X=g: W, seeing neither f nor j, is at a; Y, seeing a and b, is at c (seen by X) or the barred d. Fails.
2. U=c, Z=b, V=a, X=g, and 3. U=c, Z=g, V=k, X=b: apart from d, every free spot that sees c is in X's view, so Y cannot see U. Fails.
4. U=f, Z=g, V=h, X=b: W, seeing neither g nor h, is at i; Y, seeing f and i, is at e (also sees Z) or j (seen by X). Fails.
5. U=g, Z=f, V=e, X=b: Y sees g from a spot hidden from X, so h or k; h also sees Z, so Y=k. W is seen by Y: c and j are seen by X and i sees V, so W=l.
Only placement 5 works:

X at b and Y at k share no street, so one segment (option A) is not enough. The route b–g along the diagonal, then g–k along row c–g–k, uses 2.
Hence, option C (2).
Q58MCQNetworks & Routes
Should a new person stand at intersection d, who among the six would she see?
- AW and X only
- BU and W only
- CU and Z only
- DV and X only
Answer and solution
Answer: (A) W and X only
By fact 1, X, U and Z fill triangle b–f–g or b–c–g; by fact 2, no one else stands where X can see. Fact 4 needs an intersection just beyond Z on line UZ, other than the barred d, leaving five placements:
1. U=b, Z=f, V=j, X=g: W, seeing neither f nor j, is at a; Y, seeing a and b, is at c (seen by X) or the barred d. Fails.
2. U=c, Z=b, V=a, X=g, and 3. U=c, Z=g, V=k, X=b: apart from d, every free spot that sees c is in X's view, so Y cannot see U. Fails.
4. U=f, Z=g, V=h, X=b: W, seeing neither g nor h, is at i; Y, seeing f and i, is at e (also sees Z) or j (seen by X). Fails.
5. U=g, Z=f, V=e, X=b: Y sees g from a spot hidden from X, so h or k; h also sees Z, so Y=k. W is seen by Y: c and j are seen by X and i sees V, so W=l.
Only placement 5 works:

From d one sees column a–b–c–d, holding only X (at b), and row d–h–l, holding only W (at l). U at g is on neither, so options B and C fail.
Hence, option A (W and X only).
Data set
Set for questions 59–62
Princess, Queen, Rani and Samragni were the four finalists in a dance competition. Ashman, Badal, Gagan and Dyu were the four music composers who individually assigned items to the dancers. Each dancer had to individually perform in two dance items assigned by the different composers. The first items performed by the four dancers were all assigned by different music composers. No dancer performed her second item before the performance of the first item by any other dancers. The dancers performed their second items in the same sequence of their performance of their first items.
The following additional facts are known.
i) No composer who assigned item to Princess, assigned any item to Queen.
ii) No composer who assigned item to Rani, assigned any item to Samragni.
iii) The first performance was by Princess; this item was assigned by Badal.
iv) The last performance was by Rani; this item was assigned by Gagan.
v) The items assigned by Ashman were performed consecutively. The number of performances between items assigned by each of the remaining composers was the same.
Q59MCQTeam Selection & Scheduling
Which of the following is true?
- AThe second performance was composed by Dyu.
- BThe third performance was composed by Dyu.
- CThe third performance was composed by Ashman.
- DThe second performance was composed by Gagan.
Answer and solution
Answer: (A) The second performance was composed by Dyu.
All first items came before any second item, and second items kept the same order, so performances 1–4 and 5–8 follow the same dancer order: Princess (1st, Badal), ?, ?, Rani, Princess, ?, ?, Rani (8th, Gagan).
By (i) and (ii), each composer works with one of Princess and Queen and one of Rani and Samragni: two items each. The first items have different composers, so each composer has one item in 1–4 and one in 5–8, and Ashman's consecutive pair is the 4th and 5th.
Badal has the 1st and the 6th or 7th, Gagan the 8th and the 2nd or 3rd, and Dyu the rest; the three gaps must be equal. Badal at 6th (gap 5) needs Gagan 3rd, leaving Dyu 2nd and 7th, also gap 5. Badal at 7th (gap 6) needs Gagan 2nd, leaving Dyu 3rd and 6th, gap 3. So the composers run Badal, Dyu, Gagan, Ashman, Ashman, Badal, Dyu, Gagan.
Princess has Badal and Ashman, so by (i) Queen has Gagan and Dyu (3rd and 7th), and Samragni the 2nd and 6th (Dyu, Badal).

The 2nd was Dyu's and the 3rd Gagan's, so options B, C and D fail.
Hence, option A (The second performance was composed by Dyu.).
Q60MCQTeam Selection & Scheduling
Which of the following is FALSE?
- ASamragni did not perform in any item composed by Ashman.
- BPrincess did not perform in any item composed by Dyu.
- CRani did not perform in any item composed by Badal.
- DQueen did not perform in any item composed by Gagan.
Answer and solution
Answer: (D) Queen did not perform in any item composed by Gagan.
All first items came before any second item, and second items kept the same order, so performances 1–4 and 5–8 follow the same dancer order: Princess (1st, Badal), ?, ?, Rani, Princess, ?, ?, Rani (8th, Gagan).
By (i) and (ii), each composer works with one of Princess and Queen and one of Rani and Samragni: two items each. The first items have different composers, so each composer has one item in 1–4 and one in 5–8, and Ashman's consecutive pair is the 4th and 5th.
Badal has the 1st and the 6th or 7th, Gagan the 8th and the 2nd or 3rd, and Dyu the rest; the three gaps must be equal. Badal at 6th (gap 5) needs Gagan 3rd, leaving Dyu 2nd and 7th, also gap 5. Badal at 7th (gap 6) needs Gagan 2nd, leaving Dyu 3rd and 6th, gap 3. So the composers run Badal, Dyu, Gagan, Ashman, Ashman, Badal, Dyu, Gagan.
Princess has Badal and Ashman, so by (i) Queen has Gagan and Dyu (3rd and 7th), and Samragni the 2nd and 6th (Dyu, Badal).

Samragni (Dyu, Badal), Princess (Badal, Ashman) and Rani (Ashman, Gagan) make A, B and C true, but Queen danced Gagan's item 3rd.
Hence, option D (Queen did not perform in any item composed by Gagan.).
Q61MCQTeam Selection & Scheduling
The sixth performance was composed by:
- ABadal
- BDyu
- CAshman
- DGagan
Answer and solution
Answer: (A) Badal
All first items came before any second item, and second items kept the same order, so performances 1–4 and 5–8 follow the same dancer order: Princess (1st, Badal), ?, ?, Rani, Princess, ?, ?, Rani (8th, Gagan).
By (i) and (ii), each composer works with one of Princess and Queen and one of Rani and Samragni: two items each. The first items have different composers, so each composer has one item in 1–4 and one in 5–8, and Ashman's consecutive pair is the 4th and 5th.
Badal has the 1st and the 6th or 7th, Gagan the 8th and the 2nd or 3rd, and Dyu the rest; the three gaps must be equal. Badal at 6th (gap 5) needs Gagan 3rd, leaving Dyu 2nd and 7th, also gap 5. Badal at 7th (gap 6) needs Gagan 2nd, leaving Dyu 3rd and 6th, gap 3. So the composers run Badal, Dyu, Gagan, Ashman, Ashman, Badal, Dyu, Gagan.
Princess has Badal and Ashman, so by (i) Queen has Gagan and Dyu (3rd and 7th), and Samragni the 2nd and 6th (Dyu, Badal).

The 6th was Samragni's second item, by Badal; Ashman's items were the 4th and 5th, so option C fails.
Hence, option A (Badal).
Q62MCQTeam Selection & Scheduling
Which pair of performances were composed by the same composer?
- AThe first and the seventh
- BThe third and the seventh
- CThe second and the sixth
- DThe first and the sixth
Answer and solution
Answer: (D) The first and the sixth
All first items came before any second item, and second items kept the same order, so performances 1–4 and 5–8 follow the same dancer order: Princess (1st, Badal), ?, ?, Rani, Princess, ?, ?, Rani (8th, Gagan).
By (i) and (ii), each composer works with one of Princess and Queen and one of Rani and Samragni: two items each. The first items have different composers, so each composer has one item in 1–4 and one in 5–8, and Ashman's consecutive pair is the 4th and 5th.
Badal has the 1st and the 6th or 7th, Gagan the 8th and the 2nd or 3rd, and Dyu the rest; the three gaps must be equal. Badal at 6th (gap 5) needs Gagan 3rd, leaving Dyu 2nd and 7th, also gap 5. Badal at 7th (gap 6) needs Gagan 2nd, leaving Dyu 3rd and 6th, gap 3. So the composers run Badal, Dyu, Gagan, Ashman, Ashman, Badal, Dyu, Gagan.
Princess has Badal and Ashman, so by (i) Queen has Gagan and Dyu (3rd and 7th), and Samragni the 2nd and 6th (Dyu, Badal).

Badal composed the 1st and 6th. The 7th was Dyu's, so options A and B fail, and the 2nd (Dyu) and 6th (Badal) differ, so option C fails.
Hence, option D (The first and the sixth).
Data set
Set for questions 63–66
A new game show on TV has 100 boxes numbered 1, 2, . . . , 100 in a row, each containing a mystery prize. The prizes are items of different types, a, b, c, . . . , in decreasing order of value. The most expensive item is of type a, a diamond ring, and there is exactly one of these. You are told that the number of items at least doubles as you move to the next type. For example, there would be at least twice as many items of type b as of type a, at least twice as many items of type c as of type b and so on. There is no particular order in which the prizes are placed in the boxes.
Q63TITALogical Puzzles
What is the minimum possible number of different types of prizes?
Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.
Answer and solution
Answer: 2
Type a, the diamond ring, has exactly one item, so it fills only one of the 100 boxes. A single type of prize is therefore impossible.
Two types are enough: put 1 item of type a and 99 items of type b in the boxes. The only condition is that type b has at least twice as many items as type a, and
.
So the minimum possible number of different types of prizes is 2.
The answer is 2.
Q64TITALogical Puzzles
What is the maximum possible number of different types of prizes?
Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.
Answer and solution
Answer: 6
Type a has exactly 1 item, and each later type has at least double the previous count. With
types, the fewest items needed are
.
For 6 types this minimum is
, which is at most 100, and the counts can be raised to fill all 100 boxes, for example
(69 is at least
).
For 7 types the minimum is
, more than 100, so 7 types are impossible.
The maximum possible number of different types is 6.
The answer is 6.
Q65MCQLogical Puzzles
Which of the following is not possible?
- AThere are exactly 75 items of type e.
- BThere are exactly 30 items of type b.
- CThere are exactly 45 items of type c.
- DThere are exactly 60 items of type d.
Answer and solution
Answer: (C) There are exactly 45 items of type c.
Type a has 1 item, each type has at least twice as many items as the one before, and the counts add up to 100.
A (75 of type e):
works, since
and
.
B (30 of type b):
works, since
.
C (45 of type c): a type d would need at least 90 items, taking the total past 100, so c is the last type. Then
forces
, but
allows at most
. So this is impossible.
D (60 of type d):
works, since
,
and
.
Hence, option C (There are exactly 45 items of type c.).
Q66MCQLogical Puzzles
You ask for the type of item in box 45. Instead of being given a direct answer, you are told that there are 31 items of the same type as box 45 in boxes 1 to
44 and 43 items of the same type as box 45 in boxes 46 to 100.
What is the maximum possible number of different types of items?
- A5
- B6
- C4
- D3
Answer and solution
Answer: (A) 5
Box 45's type has
items. It must be the last type, since any type after it would need at least 150 items.
The other 25 items belong to the earlier types, whose counts start at 1 and at least double each time. Four earlier types need at least
items, and
fills all 100 boxes (18 is at least 8, and 75 is at least 36). So 5 types are possible.
Five earlier types would need at least
items, more than 25, so 6 types (option B) are impossible.
Hence, option A (5).