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CAT 2017 Slot 1 — DILR questions with answers

All 32 questions of the Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning section (24 MCQs, 8 TITA, 8 sets). Try each one, then open its answer and solution.

CAT 2017 Slot 1, timed like the real exam (180 minutes, 60 a section) and scored the CAT way: +3 right, −1 for a wrong MCQ, 0 for a wrong TITA, with the full post-mock analysis. Older official papers are in CATin Pro, with 80+ mocks and the full planner. The last three years of papers are free.

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Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning

CAT 2017 Slot 1 · 60 minutes · +3 for a right answer, −1 for a wrong MCQ, 0 for a wrong TITA

Common data

Set for questions 35–38

Healthy Bites is a fastfood joint serving three items, burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. Preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of Ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare upto to 3 portions of fries at a time, and takes 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore the time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders. Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any order are served as and when ready; however, the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served. The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders: Data for questions 35–38, CAT 2017 Slot 1 DILR

Q35MCQTeam Selection & Scheduling

Assume that only one client's order can be processed at any given point of time. So, Anish or Bani cannot start preparing a new order while a previous order is being prepared. At what time is the order placed by Client 1 completely served?
  1. 10:17
  2. 10:10
  3. 10:15
  4. 10:20
Answer and solution

Answer: (B) 10:10

Client 1 placed the order at 10:00: 1 burger, 3 portions of fries and 1 order of ice cream. No earlier order is pending, so work starts at once, and the two employees and the fryer work in parallel: Anish makes the burger from 10:00 to 10:10 (10 minutes). Bani makes the ice cream from 10:00 to 10:02 (2 minutes). The fryer makes all 3 portions together from 10:00 to 10:05 (up to 3 portions take 5 minutes). The order is completely served only when its last item, the burger, is ready at 10:10. It cannot be sooner, because the burger alone takes 10 minutes. Making the items one after another would take 10+2+5=1710 + 2 + 5 = 17 minutes, which is the 10:17 trap, but here they are made in parallel. Hence, option B (10:10).

Q36MCQTeam Selection & Scheduling

Assume that only one client's order can be processed at any given point of time. So, Anish or Bani cannot start preparing a new order while a previous order is being prepared. At what time is the order placed by Client 3 completely served?
  1. 10:35
  2. 10:22
  3. 10:25
  4. 10:17
Answer and solution

Answer: (C) 10:25

Only one client's order can be in progress at a time, so each order starts when the previous one is completely served. Order 1 (10:00): the burger takes 10 minutes, and the ice cream (2 minutes) and the 3 portions of fries (5 minutes in the fryer) are made alongside it. It is served at 10:10. Order 2 (placed at 10:05) must wait until 10:10. Its ice cream is ready at 10:12, and its 2 portions of fries, fried together, are ready at 10:15. It is served at 10:15. Order 3 (placed at 10:07) must wait until 10:15. Its burger takes 10 minutes and its fries 5 minutes, so it is served 10 minutes after 10:15, at 10:25. 10:17 (option D) would be right only if order 3 could start at 10:07 while earlier orders were still being prepared, which this question forbids. Hence, option C (10:25).

Q37MCQTeam Selection & Scheduling

Suppose the employees are allowed to process multiple orders at a time, but the preference would be to finish orders of clients who placed their orders earlier. At what time is the order placed by Client 2 completely served?
  1. 10:10
  2. 10:12
  3. 10:15
  4. 10:17
Answer and solution

Answer: (A) 10:10

Orders may now overlap, with earlier clients served first. At 10:00, Anish starts client 1's burger (ready at 10:10), Bani makes client 1's ice cream (10:00 to 10:02), and the fryer makes client 1's 3 portions of fries (10:00 to 10:05). Client 2 orders at 10:05: 2 portions of fries and 1 ice cream. The fryer has just become free and takes up to 3 portions at a time, so both portions go in together at 10:05 and are ready at 10:10. Bani is free, so the ice cream is made from 10:05 to 10:07. Client 2's last item, the fries, is ready at 10:10, so the order is completely served at 10:10. It cannot be earlier, because fries take 5 minutes and cannot be made before the order is placed. 10:15 (option C) is the time only when orders must be handled one at a time, as in the previous question. Hence, option A (10:10).

Q38MCQTeam Selection & Scheduling

Suppose the employees are allowed to process multiple orders at a time, but the preference would be to finish orders of clients who placed their orders earlier. Also assume that the fourth client came in only at 10:35. Between 10:00 and 10:30, for how many minutes is exactly one of the employees idle?
  1. 7
  2. 10
  3. 15
  4. 23
Answer and solution

Answer: (B) 10

Track both employees from 10:00 to 10:30. Anish makes client 1's burger from 10:00 to 10:10. Bani makes client 1's ice cream from 10:00 to 10:02, waits until client 2 orders at 10:05, and makes client 2's ice cream from 10:05 to 10:07. Client 3 orders at 10:07. Anish is busy until 10:10, so Bani starts client 3's burger at once and finishes at 10:17. The fries for clients 2 and 3 need no employee. After 10:10 Anish has no work, and after 10:17 neither has any, since the next client comes only at 10:35. Exactly one employee is idle from 10:02 to 10:05 (Bani, 3 minutes) and from 10:10 to 10:17 (Anish, 7 minutes). That totals 3+7=103 + 7 = 10 minutes. 23 (option D) wrongly adds 10:17 to 10:30, when both are idle. 7 (option A) misses Bani's 3 minutes. Hence, option B (10).

Common data

Set for questions 39–42

A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of villages spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O). The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not.. The table below gives the number of kids in different types of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education: It is also known that: 1. In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, In S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school. 2. In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education. 3. The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W. Data for questions 39–42, CAT 2017 Slot 1 DILR

Q39MCQTables & Caselets

What percentage of kids from S were studying in P?
  1. 37%
  2. 6%
  3. 79%
  4. 56%
Answer and solution

Answer: (A) 37%

S has 200×50=10000200 \times 50 = 10000 surveyed kids. G: condition 1 says 60% of the kids in S were in G, which is 6000. O: the table shows 300 kids in S who were not in school and whose mothers dropped out. Condition 1 also says every kid in S whose mother completed primary education was in school. So S has exactly 300 kids in O. P: 10000−6000−300=370010000 - 6000 - 300 = 3700 kids, which is 37% of the kids from S. The completed table for all 30000 kids shows this in the S row: Solution figure for question 39, CAT 2017 Slot 1 Option C (79%) is the share in P only among kids whose mothers completed primary education. S has 10000−5700=430010000 - 5700 = 4300 such kids, of whom 6000−5100=9006000 - 5100 = 900 are in G and none in O, so 3400 are in P, and 34004300≈0.79\frac{3400}{4300} \approx 0.79. The question asks about all kids from S. Hence, option A (37%).

Q40MCQTables & Caselets

Among the kids in W whose mothers had completed primary education, how many were not in school?
  1. 300
  2. 1200
  3. 1050
  4. 1500
Answer and solution

Answer: (A) 300

We need the kids in W whose mothers completed primary education and who were not in school (O). All regions: 8% of 30000 kids, that is 2400, were in O. The table shows 1800 of them had mothers who dropped out, so 2400−1800=6002400 - 1800 = 600 O kids had mothers who completed primary education. NE: condition 2 says half of NE's O kids had mothers who dropped out. The table gives 300 such kids, so NE has 600 O kids, and 300 of them had mothers who completed primary education. S: condition 1 says every kid in S whose mother completed primary education was in school, so S has none. W: 600−300−0=300600 - 300 - 0 = 300. The completed table for kids whose mothers completed primary education shows this in the O column: Solution figure for question 40, CAT 2017 Slot 1 Option B (1200) is the number of W's O kids whose mothers dropped out, straight from the table, and option D (1500) counts all O kids in W. Neither is the group asked for. Hence, option A (300).

Q41MCQTables & Caselets

In a follow up survey of the same kids two years later, it was found that all the kids were now in school. Of the kids who were not in school earlier, in one region, 25% were in G now, whereas the rest were enrolled in P; in the second region, all such kids were in G now; while in the third region, 50% of such kids had now joined G while the rest had joined P. As a result, in all three regions put together, 50% of the kids who were earlier out of school had joined G. It was also seen that no surveyed kid had changed schools. What number of the surveyed kids now were in G in W?
  1. 6000
  2. 5250
  3. 6750
  4. 6300
Answer and solution

Answer: (A) 6000

Out-of-school (O) kids: 8% of 30000 is 2400. NE has 600, since the table's 300 is half of them (condition 2). S has only the table's 300, because in S every kid whose mother completed primary education was in school. W has 2400−600−300=15002400 - 600 - 300 = 1500. G before the follow-up: G in NE equals G in W, G in S is 6000 (60% of 10000), and G in all is 16500 (55% of 30000). So G in W is 16500−60002=5250\frac{16500 - 6000}{2} = 5250. The completed table for all kids shows these counts: Solution figure for question 41, CAT 2017 Slot 1 Half of the 2400, that is 1200, joined G. The rates 25%, 100% and 50% go to the three regions in some order. W cannot be the 100% region, because 1500 alone exceeds 1200. If NE were, the total would be 600+375+150=1125600 + 375 + 150 = 1125 or 600+750+75=1425600 + 750 + 75 = 1425. So S is the 100% region. Then NE at 25% and W at 50% give 150+750+300=1200150 + 750 + 300 = 1200, while the other order gives 300+375+300=975300 + 375 + 300 = 975. So 750 of W's O kids joined G. G in W now: 5250+750=60005250 + 750 = 6000. Option B (5250) forgets the new joiners. Hence, option A (6000).

Q42MCQTables & Caselets

In a follow up survey of the same kids two years later, it was found that all the kids were now in school. Of the kids who were not in school earlier, in one region, 25% were in G now, whereas the rest were enrolled in P; in the second region, all such kids were in G now; while in the third region, 50% of such kids had now joined G while the rest had joined P. As a result, in all three regions put together, 50% of the kids who were earlier out of school had joined G. It was also seen that no surveyed kid had changed schools. What percentage of the surveyed kids in S, whose mothers had dropped out before completing primary education, were in G now?
  1. 94.7%
  2. 89.5%
  3. 93.4%
  4. Cannot be determined from the given information
Answer and solution

Answer: (A) 94.7%

First find which region sent all its out-of-school (O) kids to G. O kids: 8% of 30000 is 2400. NE has 600, since the table's 300 is half of them (condition 2). S has 300, because in S every kid whose mother completed primary education was in school. So W has 1500, as the completed table for all kids shows: Solution figure for question 42, CAT 2017 Slot 1 Half of 2400, that is 1200, joined G. W cannot be the 100% region, since 1500>12001500 > 1200. If NE were, the total would be 600+375+150=1125600 + 375 + 150 = 1125 or 600+750+75=1425600 + 750 + 75 = 1425. So S is the 100% region, with NE at 25% and W at 50%: 150+750+300=1200150 + 750 + 300 = 1200. The other order gives 975. In S, 5700 kids had mothers who dropped out: 5100 in G, 300 in P and 300 in O (from the table). All 300 of those O kids joined G, so G now has 5100+300=54005100 + 300 = 5400 of them. So the share is 54005700≈0.947\frac{5400}{5700} \approx 0.947, that is 94.7%. Option B (89.5%) is 51005700\frac{5100}{5700}, the share before the follow-up. Option D fails because only one region-to-rate match works. Hence, option A (94.7%).

Common data

Set for questions 43–46

Applicants for the doctoral programmes of Ambi Institute of Engineering (AIE) and Bambi Institute of Engineering (BIE) have to appear for a Common Entrance Test (CET). The test has three sections: Physics (P), Chemistry (C), and Maths (M). Among those appearing for CET, those at or above the 80th percentile in at least two sections, and at or above the 90th percentile overall, are selected for Advanced Entrance Test (AET) conducted by AIE. AET is used by AIE for final selection. For the 200 candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall based on CET, the following are known about their performance in CET: 1. No one is below the 80th percentile in all 3 sections. 2. 150 are at or above the 80th percentile in exactly two sections. 3. The number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in P is the same as the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in C. The same is the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in M. 4. Number of candidates below 80th percentile in P: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in C: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in M = 4:2:1. BIE uses a different process for selection. If any candidate is appearing in the AET by AIE, BIE considers their AET score for final selection provided the candidate is at or above the 80th percentile in P. Any other candidate at or above the 80th percentile in P in CET, but who is not eligible for the AET, is required to appear in a separate test to be conducted by BIE for being considered for final selection. Altogether, there are 400 candidates this year who are at or above the 80th percentile in P.

Q43MCQSet Theory

What best can be concluded about the number of candidates sitting for the separate test for BIE who were at or above the 90th percentile overall in CET?
  1. 3 or 10
  2. 10
  3. 5
  4. 7 or 10
Answer and solution

Answer: (A) 3 or 10

Label the 200 as in the diagram: a, b, c are those at or above the 80th percentile in P only, M only and C only, with a=b=ca = b = c; d, e, f are those in exactly P and M, P and C, M and C; g is all three; n is 0. Solution figure for question 43, CAT 2017 Slot 1 As d+e+f=150d + e + f = 150, we get 3a+g=503a + g = 50, so a≤16a \le 16. Those below 80 in P, C and M number 2a+f2a + f, 2a+d2a + d and 2a+e2a + e, in the ratio 4:2:1. With 2a+e=k2a + e = k, these are 4k4k, 2k2k, kk; adding gives 6a+150=7k6a + 150 = 7k. Only a=3a = 3 or a=10a = 10 makes kk whole. The separate test is for those at or above 80 in P who are not in the AET. Among the 200, the AET takes everyone at or above 80 in two or more sections, so only those at or above 80 in P alone are left: aa. So the number is 3 or 10. Option B (10) keeps only one case, and the 7 in option D fails because 6×7+150=1926 \times 7 + 150 = 192 is not a multiple of 7. Hence, option A (3 or 10).

Q44TITASet Theory

If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also at or above the 80th percentile in all three sections in CET is actually a multiple of 5, what is the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and at or above the 80th percentile in both P and M in CET?

Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.

Answer and solution

Answer: 60

Label the 200 as in the diagram: a, b, c are those at or above the 80th percentile in P only, M only and C only, with a=b=ca = b = c; d is P and M only, e is P and C only, f is M and C only; g is all three; n is 0. Solution figure for question 44, CAT 2017 Slot 1 Then d+e+f=150d + e + f = 150, so 3a+g=503a + g = 50 and a≤16a \le 16. The numbers below 80 in P, C and M are 2a+f2a + f, 2a+d2a + d and 2a+e2a + e, in the ratio 4:2:1. Put 2a+e=k2a + e = k, 2a+d=2k2a + d = 2k and 2a+f=4k2a + f = 4k. Adding gives 6a+150=7k6a + 150 = 7k, so a=3a = 3 (k=24k = 24) or a=10a = 10 (k=30k = 30). Then g=50−3ag = 50 - 3a is 41 or 20. Since g is a multiple of 5, g=20g = 20, so a=10a = 10 and k=30k = 30. This gives d=2k−2a=60−20=40d = 2k - 2a = 60 - 20 = 40. The candidates at or above 80 in both P and M are those in P and M only plus those in all three: d+g=40+20=60d + g = 40 + 20 = 60. The answer is 60.

Q45TITASet Theory

If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also at or above the 80th percentile in all three sections in CET is actually a multiple of 5, then how many candidates were shortlisted for the AET for AIE?

Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.

Answer and solution

Answer: 170

Use the regions of the diagram for the 200: a, b, c are those at or above the 80th percentile only in P, only in M and only in C, with a=b=ca = b = c (condition 3); d, e, f are those in exactly two sections; g is all three; n is 0 (condition 1). Solution figure for question 45, CAT 2017 Slot 1 Condition 2 gives d+e+f=150d + e + f = 150, so 3a+g=503a + g = 50 and a≤16a \le 16. The numbers below 80 in P, C and M are 2a+f2a + f, 2a+d2a + d and 2a+e2a + e, in the ratio 4:2:1. Setting 2a+e=k2a + e = k and adding gives 6a+150=7k6a + 150 = 7k, so a=3a = 3 or a=10a = 10, and g=50−3ag = 50 - 3a is 41 or 20. Since g is a multiple of 5, g=20g = 20. The AET needs at or above the 90th percentile overall, which all 200 are, and at or above the 80th percentile in at least two sections. So the shortlist is everyone in exactly two sections plus everyone in all three: d+e+f+g=150+20=170d + e + f + g = 150 + 20 = 170. The answer is 170.

Q46MCQSet Theory

If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also are at or above the 80th percentile in P in CET, is more than 100, how many candidates had to sit for the separate test for BIE?
  1. 299
  2. 310
  3. 321
  4. 330
Answer and solution

Answer: (A) 299

Label the 200 as in the diagram: a, b, c are those at or above the 80th percentile in P only, M only and C only, with a=b=ca = b = c; d, e, f are those in exactly P and M, P and C, M and C; g is all three; n is 0. Solution figure for question 46, CAT 2017 Slot 1 Then d+e+f=150d + e + f = 150 and 3a+g=503a + g = 50. Those below 80 in P, C and M, 2a+f2a + f, 2a+d2a + d and 2a+e2a + e, are in the ratio 4:2:1. With 2a+e=k2a + e = k, adding gives 6a+150=7k6a + 150 = 7k, so a=3a = 3 or 1010. If a=3a = 3: k=24k = 24, e=18e = 18, d=42d = 42, g=41g = 41, so a+d+e+g=104a + d + e + g = 104 are at or above 80 in P. If a=10a = 10: k=30k = 30, e=10e = 10, d=40d = 40, g=20g = 20, giving 80. Only 104 exceeds 100, so a=3a = 3. The d+e+g=101d + e + g = 101 AET candidates at or above 80 in P use their AET score. The other 400−101=299400 - 101 = 299 take the separate test. Option D (330) is 400−70400 - 70, from the ruled-out case. Hence, option A (299).

Common data

Set for questions 47–50

Simple Happiness index (SHI) of a country is computed on the basis of three, parameters: social support (S),freedom to life choices (F) and corruption perception (C). Each of these three parameters is measured on a scale of 0 to 8 (integers only). A country is then categorised based on the total score obtained by summing the scores of all the three parameters, as shown in the following table: Following diagram depicts the frequency distribution of the scores in S, F and C of 10 countries - Amda, Benga, Calla, Delma, Eppa, Varsa, Wanna, Xanda,Yanga and Zooma: Further, the following are known. 1. Amda and Calla jointly have the lowest total score, 7, with identical scores in all the three parameters. 2. Zooma has a total score of 17. 3. All the 3 countries, which are categorised as happy, have the highest score ln exactly one parameter. Data for questions 47–50, CAT 2017 Slot 1 DILR Data for questions 47–50, CAT 2017 Slot 1 DILR

Q47TITABar & Line Charts

What is Amda's score in F?

Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.

Answer and solution

Answer: 1

From the chart, the scores are S: 3,3,3,4,4,4,5,5,6,7; F: 1,1,2,3,3,4,5,5,5,7; C: 1,2,2,2,3,3,3,3,4,6. Amda and Calla have identical scores, so every value they use must appear at least twice in its list. In S the smallest such value is 3, in C it is 2, and in F the values are 1, 3 and 5. If their F score were 3 or more, their total would be at least 3+3+2=83 + 3 + 2 = 8, more than 7. So their F score is 1, and S and C add up to 6. That gives (S, F, C) = (3, 1, 3) or (4, 1, 2). Both fit the chart, and in both Amda's F score is 1. The answer is 1.

Q48TITABar & Line Charts

What is Zooma's score in S?

Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.

Answer and solution

Answer: 6

From the chart, the scores are S: 3,3,3,4,4,4,5,5,6,7; F: 1,1,2,3,3,4,5,5,5,7; C: 1,2,2,2,3,3,3,3,4,6. Zooma's total of 17 makes it happy (14 to 19). The top scores are 7 in S, 7 in F and 6 in C, and each happy country holds exactly one of them. If Zooma held the 7 in S, its F and C could be at most 5 and 4, giving only 7+5+4=167 + 5 + 4 = 16. So Zooma does not hold it, and its S score is at most 6. If Zooma holds the 7 in F, its S and C add to 10 with S at most 6 and C at most 4, so S is 6 and C is 4. If Zooma holds the 6 in C, its S and F add to 11 with S at most 6 and F at most 5, so S is 6 and F is 5. Either way, Zooma scores 6 in S. The answer is 6.

Q49MCQBar & Line Charts

Benga and Delma, two countries categorized as happy, are tied with the same total score. What is the maximum score they can have?
  1. 14
  2. 15
  3. 16
  4. 17
Answer and solution

Answer: (B) 15

From the chart, the scores are S: 3,3,3,4,4,4,5,5,6,7; F: 1,1,2,3,3,4,5,5,5,7; C: 1,2,2,2,3,3,3,3,4,6. The happy countries are Zooma, Benga and Delma, and each holds exactly one of the top scores: 7 in S, 7 in F, 6 in C. Zooma (17) cannot hold the 7 in S, since its F and C would give at most 7+5+4=167 + 5 + 4 = 16. So Zooma is (6, 7, 4) or (6, 5, 6), and Benga and Delma hold the other two top scores. If Zooma is (6, 7, 4), the country with the 7 in S has F at most 5 and C at most 3 (the only 4 is Zooma's, the 6 is the other country's), so it scores at most 7+5+3=157 + 5 + 3 = 15. If Zooma is (6, 5, 6), scoring 16 needs (7, 5, 4) for one country and (5, 7, 4) for the other. C has only one 4, so they cannot both reach 16. So no tie at 16 or 17 (options C and D) is possible. A tie at 15 works, for example Zooma (6, 7, 4) with Benga and Delma at (7, 5, 3) and (5, 4, 6). Hence, option B (15).

Q50MCQBar & Line Charts

If Benga scores 16 and Delma scores 15, then what is the maximum number of countries with a score of 13?
  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3
Answer and solution

Answer: (B) 1

From the chart, the scores are S: 3,3,3,4,4,4,5,5,6,7; F: 1,1,2,3,3,4,5,5,5,7; C: 1,2,2,2,3,3,3,3,4,6. Zooma, Benga and Delma each hold exactly one top score: 7 in S, 7 in F, 6 in C. Zooma (17) cannot hold the 7 in S, as 7+5+4=167 + 5 + 4 = 16, so Zooma is (6, 7, 4) or (6, 5, 6). If Zooma is (6, 7, 4), Benga (16) must hold the 6 in C and be (5, 5, 6), and Delma (15) is (7, 5, 3). If Zooma is (6, 5, 6), Benga and Delma are (7, 5, 4) and (5, 7, 3), or (5, 7, 4) and (7, 5, 3). In every case the three happy countries use S = 5, 6, 7, F = 5, 5, 7 and C = 3, 4, 6. The other seven countries share S: 3,3,3,4,4,4,5; F: 1,1,2,3,3,4,5; C: 1,2,2,2,3,3,3. The highest total left is 5+5+3=135 + 5 + 3 = 13, and S and F each have only one 5. So at most one country scores 13, as (5, 5, 3); option C (2) would need a second 5 in each. Hence, option B (1).

Common data

Set for questions 51–54

There are 21 employees working in a division, out of whom 10 are special-skilled employees (SE) and the remaining are regular-skilled employees (RE). During the next five months, the division has to complete five projects every month. Out of the 25 projects, 5 projects are "challenging", while the remaining ones are "standard". Each of the challenging projects has to be completed in different months. Every month, five teams — T1 T2, T3, T4 and T5, work on one project each. T1, T2, T3, T4 and T5 are allotted the challenging project in the first, second, third, fourth and fifth month, respectively. The team assigned the challenging project has one more employee than the rest. In the first month, T1 has one more SE than T2, T2 has one more SE than T3, T 3 has one more SE than T4, and T4 has one more SE than T5. Between two successive months, the composition of the teams changes as follows: a. The team allotted the challenging project, gets two SE from the team which was allotted the challenging project in the previous month. In exchange, one RE is shifted from the former team to the latter team. b. After the above exchange, if T1 has any SE and T5 has any RE, then one SE is shifted from T1 to T5, and one RE is shifted from T5 to T1. Also, if T2 has any SE and T4 has any RE, then one SE is shifted from T2 to T4, and one RE is shifted from T4 to T2. Each standard project has a total of 100 credit points, while each challenging project has 200 credit points. The credit points are equally shared between the employees included in that team.

Q51MCQTeam Selection & Scheduling

The number of times in which the composition of team T2 and the number of times in which composition of team T4 remained unchanged in two successive months are:
  1. (2,1)
  2. (1,0)
  3. (0,0)
  4. (1,1)
Answer and solution

Answer: (B) (1,0)

The challenging team has 5 members and the others 4 (5+4×4=215 + 4 \times 4 = 21). In month 1, if T5 has xx SE, the teams have x+4x + 4, x+3x + 3, x+2x + 2, x+1x + 1 and xx SE, so 5x+10=105x + 10 = 10 and x=0x = 0. Applying rules a and b each month, with (SE, RE) for T1 to T5: Month 1: (4,1) (3,1) (2,2) (1,3) (0,4) Month 2: (1,3) (4,1) (2,2) (2,2) (1,3) Month 3: (0,4) (1,3) (4,1) (3,1) (2,2) Month 4: (0,4) (1,3) (2,2) (5,0) (2,2) Month 5: (0,4) (0,4) (2,2) (4,0) (4,1) For example, from month 3 to 4, T4 takes 2 SE from T3 and gives back 1 RE. Then T1 has no SE and T4 has no RE, so rule b makes no swaps. T2 changes every month except from month 3 to month 4, so it is unchanged once. T4 changes every month, even from month 4 to 5, when it sends 2 SE to T5, so option D (1,1) fails. Hence, option B ((1,0)).

Q52MCQTeam Selection & Scheduling

The number of SE in T1 and T5 for the projects in the third month are, respectively:
  1. (0,2)
  2. (0,3)
  3. (1,2)
  4. (1,3)
Answer and solution

Answer: (A) (0,2)

Teams have 4 members, except the challenging team, which has 5. In month 1 the SE counts fall by one from T1 to T5 and total 10, so they are 4, 3, 2, 1, 0, and the RE counts are 1, 1, 2, 3, 4. Month 1 to 2: T1 gives 2 SE to T2 and gets 1 RE back, leaving T1 with 2 SE and 2 RE. Rule b applies, since T1 has SE and T5 has RE, so T1 sends 1 SE to T5 for 1 RE. Now T1 has (1 SE, 3 RE) and T5 has (1 SE, 3 RE). Month 2 to 3: rule a moves SE from T2 to T3 and does not touch T1 or T5. Rule b applies again, since T1 has 1 SE and T5 has 3 RE. So T1 has (0 SE, 4 RE) and T5 has (2 SE, 2 RE). The table shows every team in month 3: Solution figure for question 52, CAT 2017 Slot 1 So in month 3, T1 has 0 SE and T5 has 2 SE. T1 has lost its last SE, which rules out options C and D, and T5 gained exactly one SE at each change, so it has 2, not 3, which rules out option B. Hence, option A ((0,2)).

Q53MCQTeam Selection & Scheduling

Which of the following CANNOT be the total credit points earned by any employee from the projects?
  1. 140
  2. 150
  3. 170
  4. 200
Answer and solution

Answer: (B) 150

A challenging project has 200 points shared by 5 people, so 40 each. A standard project has 100 points shared by 4, so 25 each. Every employee works on one project each month, five in all. If kk of them are challenging, the total is 40k+25(5−k)=125+15k40k + 25(5 - k) = 125 + 15k, for k=0,1,…,5k = 0, 1, \dots, 5. The possible totals are 125, 140, 155, 170, 185 and 200. 140 (option A, k=1k = 1) and 170 (option C, k=3k = 3) are on the list. So is 200 (option D, k=5k = 5). Each month 2 SE move from the old challenging team to the new one, so one SE can stay with the challenging project from T1 through T5. 150 would need 15k=2515k = 25, which has no whole-number solution. Hence, option B (150).

Q54MCQTeam Selection & Scheduling

One of the employees named Aneek scored 185 points. Which of the following CANNOT be true?
  1. Aneek worked only in teams T1, T2, T3, and T4.
  2. Aneek worked only in teams T1,T2, T4, and T5.
  3. Aneek worked only in teams T2,T3, T4, and T5.
  4. Aneek worked only in teams T1,T3, T4, and T5.
Answer and solution

Answer: (D) Aneek worked only in teams T1,T3, T4, and T5.

A challenging project gives 40 points and a standard one 25, so kk challenging projects give 125+15k125 + 15k. Since 185=125+15×4185 = 125 + 15 \times 4, Aneek was on the challenging project in 4 of the 5 months. Option D: Aneek is never in T2, so Aneek misses month 2's challenging project and must be in T1 in month 1, T3 in month 3, T4 in month 4 and T5 in month 5. From month 1 to 2, a member of T1 can only stay in T1, move to T2 (rule a) or move to T5 (rule b). From month 2 to 3, the only people who join T3 are the 2 SE sent from T2. Without being in T2, Aneek cannot reach T3 in month 3, so D cannot be true. The others work for an SE. Option B: T1, then T2 (rule a), then T4 (rule b), staying in T4 for month 4 and moving to T5 in month 5. Option A: T1 to T4 with the challenging project, then staying in T4. Option C: T2 in month 1, then T2 to T5 with the challenging project. Hence, option D (Aneek worked only in teams T1,T3, T4, and T5.).

Common data

Set for questions 55–58

In a square layout of site 5m ~ 5m 25 equal-sized square platforms of different heights are built. The heights (in metre) of individual platforms are as shown below: Individuals (all of same height) are seated on these platforms. We say an individual A can reach individual B, if all the three following conditions are met; (i) A and B are In the same row or column (ii) A is at a lower height than B (iii) If there is/are any individuals (s) between A and B, such individual(s) must be at a height lower than that of A. Thus in the table given above, consider the Individual seated at height 8 on 3rd row and 2nd column. He can be reached by four individuals. He can be reached by the individual on his left at height 7, by the two individuals on his right at heights of 4 and 6 and by the individual above at height 5. Rows in the layout are numbered from top to bottom and columns are numbered from left to right. Data for questions 55–58, CAT 2017 Slot 1 DILR

Q55MCQLogical Puzzles

How many individuals in this layout can be reached by just one individual?
  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 8
Answer and solution

Answer: (C) 7

For each individual, count who can reach them: look left, right, up and down, and count a person only if their platform is lower and every platform in between is lower still (condition (iii)). The grid below gives each platform's height with, in brackets, the number of individuals who can reach it: Solution figure for question 55, CAT 2017 Slot 1 Exactly seven individuals are reached by just one person (positions given as row, column): the 2 at (1, 3), by the 1 on its left; the 7 at (3, 1), by the 3 below it; the 4 at (3, 3), by the 3 above it; the 5 at (3, 5), by the 2 below it; the 3 at (4, 1), by the 1 below it; the 2 at (4, 5), by the 1 on its left; and the 3 at (5, 4), by the 1 above it. Option A (3) is what you get by ignoring condition (iii). For example, the 6 at (1, 1) is lower than the 7 at (3, 1) but cannot reach it, because the 9 between them is higher than 6. Counting such blocked people adds reachers and leaves only 3 individuals with a single reacher. Hence, option C (7).

Q56MCQLogical Puzzles

Which of the following is true for any individual at a platform of height 1 m in this layout?
  1. They can be reached by all the individuals in their own row and column.
  2. They can be reached by at least 4 individuals.
  3. They can be reached by at least one individual.
  4. They cannot be reached by anyone.
Answer and solution

Answer: (D) They cannot be reached by anyone.

By condition (ii), a person can reach an individual only from a lower platform in the same row or column. The heights in the layout run from 1 m to 9 m, so 1 m is the lowest. There are three individuals at 1 m: in row 1 column 2, row 4 column 4 and row 5 column 1. Nobody stands lower than them, so nobody can reach any of them. This rules out option C (at least one individual) and option B (at least 4), since each of them is reached by no one. Option A fails for the same reason: everyone else in their rows and columns stands higher, and a higher person cannot reach a lower one. Hence, option D (They cannot be reached by anyone.).

Q57MCQLogical Puzzles

We can find two individuals who cannot be reached by anyone in
  1. the last row.
  2. the fourth row.
  3. the fourth column.
  4. the middle column.
Answer and solution

Answer: (C) the fourth column.

Apply the reach rules to each option and look for individuals whom nobody can reach. Last row (1, 7, 6, 3, 9): only the 1 cannot be reached. The 7 and the 6 are reached by two people each, the 3 by the 1 above it and the 9 by six people. So option A fails. Fourth row (3, 9, 5, 1, 2): only the 1 cannot be reached. The 3 is reached by the 1 below it, the 2 by the 1 beside it, and the 9 and the 5 by several people. So option B fails. Middle column (2, 3, 4, 5, 6): everyone can be reached; for example, the 2 at the top is reached by the 1 on its left. So option D fails. Fourth column (4, 2, 6, 1, 3): the 1 in row 4 is on the lowest platform, so nobody can reach it. The 2 in row 2 has only higher neighbours (3 on its left, 8 on its right, 4 above, 6 below), and the 1 further down is blocked by the 6. So two individuals here cannot be reached. Hence, option C (the fourth column.).

Q58MCQLogical Puzzles

Which of the following statements is true about this layout?
  1. Each row has an individual who can be reached by 5 or more individuals.
  2. Each row has an individual who cannot be reached by anyone.
  3. Each row has at least two individuals who can be reached by an equal number of individuals.
  4. All individuals at the height of 9 m can be reached by at least 5 individuals.
Answer and solution

Answer: (C) Each row has at least two individuals who can be reached by an equal number of individuals.

Count, for each individual, how many people can reach them. Row by row, with each height followed by its count in brackets: row 1: 6(3), 1(0), 2(1), 4(3), 3(0); row 2: 9(4), 5(2), 3(2), 2(0), 8(5); row 3: 7(1), 8(4), 4(1), 6(6), 5(1); row 4: 3(1), 9(4), 5(3), 1(0), 2(1); row 5: 1(0), 7(2), 6(2), 3(1), 9(6). Option A fails: the highest count in row 1 is 3 and in row 4 it is 4, so neither row has anyone reached by 5 or more. Option B fails: in row 3 everyone is reached by at least one person. Option D fails: the 9 in row 2 is reached by only four people (the 5 and the 8 in its row, the 6 above it and the 7 below it), and the 9 in row 4 also by only four. Option C holds: row 1 has two 3s (and two 0s), row 2 has two 2s, row 3 has three 1s, row 4 has two 1s and row 5 has two 2s. Hence, option C (Each row has at least two individuals who can be reached by an equal number of individuals.).

Common data

Set for questions 59–62

A new airlines company is planning to start operations in a country. The company has identified ten different cities which they plan to connect through their network to start with. The flight duration between any pair of cities will be less than one hour. To start operations, the company has to decide on a daily schedule. The underlying principle that they are working on is the following: Any person staying in any of these 10 cities should be able to make a trip to any other city in the morning and should be able to return by the evening of the same day.

Q59MCQNetworks & Routes

If the underlying principle is to be satisfied in such a way that the journey between any two cities can be performed using only direct (non-stop) flights, then the minimum number of direct flights to be scheduled is:
  1. 45
  2. 90
  3. 180
  4. 135
Answer and solution

Answer: (C) 180

Take any pair of cities, P and Q, and use only direct flights. A person from P needs a morning flight P→QP \to Q and an evening flight Q→PQ \to P. A person from Q needs a morning flight Q→PQ \to P and an evening flight P→QP \to Q. A morning flight cannot also serve as an evening flight, so each pair needs at least 4 flights: one in each direction in the morning and one in each direction in the evening. Ten cities form (102)=45\binom{10}{2} = 45 pairs, so the minimum is 45×4=18045 \times 4 = 180 flights. Option B (90) allows only one flight in each direction per pair. That fails: the single P→QP \to Q flight would have to leave in the morning for the person from P and in the evening for the person from Q. Hence, option C (180).

Q60MCQNetworks & Routes

Suppose three of the ten cities are to be developed as hubs. A hub is a city which is connected with every other city by direct flights each way, both in the morning as well as in the evening. The only direct flights which will be scheduled are originating and/or terminating in one of the hubs. Then the minimum number of direct flights that need to be scheduled so that the underlying principle of the airline to serve all the ten cities is met without visiting more than one hub during one trip is:
  1. 54
  2. 120
  3. 96
  4. 60
Answer and solution

Answer: (C) 96

A hub must have direct flights to and from every other city, in the morning and in the evening. So each hub–city pair needs 4 flights: hub to city and city to hub in the morning, and the same two in the evening. Hubs to non-hub cities: each hub serves 77 non-hub cities, so it needs 7×4=287 \times 4 = 28 flights, and the three hubs need 3×28=843 \times 28 = 84. Between hubs: there are 33 pairs of hubs, each needing 44 flights, so 3×4=123 \times 4 = 12. No other flights are needed. A trip between two non-hub cities goes through one hub in the morning and returns through the same hub in the evening, so it visits only one hub. Total =84+12=96= 84 + 12 = 96. The trap is 120: counting each hub's flights to all 9 other cities gives 3×9×4=1083 \times 9 \times 4 = 108, which already counts each of the 12 hub-to-hub flights twice (once from each hub), so the true total is 108−12=96108 - 12 = 96; adding another 12 to reach 120 counts them a third time. Hence, option C (96).

Q61TITANetworks & Routes

Suppose the 10 cities are divided into 4 distinct groups G1, G2, G3, G4 having 3, 3, 2 and 2 cities respectively and that G1 consists of cities named A, B and C. Further, suppose that direct flights are allowed only between two cities satisfying one of the following: 1. Both cities are in G1 2. Between A and any city in G2 3. Between B and any city in G3 4. Between C and any city in G4 Then the minimum number of direct flights that satisfies the underlying principle of the airline is:

Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.

Answer and solution

Answer: 40

The question intends every permitted pair of cities to have its own direct flights, so flights are scheduled on every permitted route. These are A–B, B–C and C–A within G1 (3 routes); A with each of the 3 cities of G2 (3 routes); B with each of the 2 cities of G3 (2 routes); and C with each of the 2 cities of G4 (2 routes). That makes 3+3+2+2=103 + 3 + 2 + 2 = 10 routes, and every city can reach every other through them. Each route needs at least 4 flights. On a route between P and Q, a person from P must fly from P to Q in the morning and back in the evening, and a person from Q needs the reverse. So there must be a morning flight and an evening flight in each direction. Total flights =10×4=40= 10 \times 4 = 40. The answer is 40.

Q62TITANetworks & Routes

Suppose the 10 cities are divided into 4 distinct groups G1, G2, G3, G4 having 3, 3, 2 and 2 cities respectively and that G1 consists of cities named A, B and C. Further, suppose that direct flights are allowed only between two cities satisfying one of the following: 1. Both cities are in G1 2. Between A and any city in G2 3. Between B and any city in G3 4. Between C and any city in G4 However, due to operational difficulties at A, it was later decided that the only flights that would operate at A would be those to and from B. Cities in G2 would have to be assigned to G3 or to G4. What would be the maximum reduction in the number of direct flights as compared to the situation before the operational difficulties arose?

Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.

Answer and solution

Answer: 4

Before the change there were 10 routes with 4 flights each (a morning and an evening flight in each direction), that is 40 flights. After the change, A keeps only its route to B, so the routes A–C and A–(each G2 city) are dropped. The 3 cities of G2 move to G3 or G4; say kk join G3 and 3−k3 - k join G4. The routes are now A–B and B–C (2 routes), B with each of the 2+k2 + k cities of G3, and C with each of the 5−k5 - k cities of G4. That is 2+(2+k)+(5−k)=92 + (2 + k) + (5 - k) = 9 routes, whatever kk is. So there are 9×4=369 \times 4 = 36 flights. The G2 cities keep one route each, now to B or C instead of A; the only route lost is A–C. The reduction is 40−36=440 - 36 = 4. Since every way of reassigning the G2 cities gives the same reduction, the maximum reduction is 4. The answer is 4.

Common data

Set for questions 63–66

Four cars need to travel from Akala (A) to Bakala (B). Two routes are available, one via Mamur (M) and the other via Nanur (N). The roads from A to M, and from N to B, are both short and narrow. In each case, one car takes 6 minutes to cover the distance, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 3 minutes because of congestion. (For example, if only two cars drive from A to M, each car takes 9 minutes.) On the road from A to N, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. On the road from M to B, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 0.9 minute. The police department orders each car to take a particular route in such a manner that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order, while the other cars are following the order.

Q63TITANetworks & Routes

How many cars would be asked to take the route A-N-B, that is Akala-Nanur-Bakala route, by the police department?

Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.

Answer and solution

Answer: 2

Try 2 cars on each route. A-M-B: A-M takes 6+3=96 + 3 = 9 and M-B takes 20+0.9=20.920 + 0.9 = 20.9, a total of 29.929.9 minutes. A-N-B: A-N takes 20+1=2120 + 1 = 21 and N-B takes 6+3=96 + 3 = 9, a total of 3030 minutes. If an A-M-B car switches, A-N-B has 3 cars and takes (20+2)+(6+6)=34(20 + 2) + (6 + 6) = 34 minutes. If an A-N-B car switches, A-M-B has 3 cars and takes (6+6)+(20+1.8)=33.8(6 + 6) + (20 + 1.8) = 33.8 minutes. Neither car gains, so the 2–2 order is stable. Every other order lets some car gain. With 3 cars on A-M-B (33.8 minutes each) and 1 on A-N-B, an A-M-B car can switch and take 30. With 1 on A-M-B and 3 on A-N-B (34 minutes each), an A-N-B car can switch and take 29.9. With all 4 on one route (37.7 or 38 minutes), a car that switches alone takes 26. So the police send 2 cars by A-N-B. The answer is 2.

Q64MCQNetworks & Routes

If all the cars follow the police order, what is the difference in travel time (in minutes) between a car which takes the route A-N-B and a car that takes the route A-M-B?
  1. 1
  2. 0.1
  3. 0.2
  4. 0.9
Answer and solution

Answer: (B) 0.1

Under the police order, 2 cars take each route. A-M-B: A-M with 2 cars takes 6+3=96 + 3 = 9 minutes and M-B with 2 cars takes 20+0.9=20.920 + 0.9 = 20.9 minutes, a total of 29.929.9 minutes. A-N-B: A-N with 2 cars takes 20+1=2120 + 1 = 21 minutes and N-B with 2 cars takes 6+3=96 + 3 = 9 minutes, a total of 3030 minutes. The difference is 30−29.9=0.130 - 29.9 = 0.1 minute. Options D (0.9) and A (1) are just the extra time per additional car on M-B and on A-N. The two narrow roads take 9 minutes each and cancel out, so the gap is 21−20.9=0.121 - 20.9 = 0.1, not either increment. Hence, option B (0.1).

Q65TITANetworks & Routes

A new one-way road is built from M to N. Each car now has three possible routes to travel from A to B: A-M-B, A-N-B and A-M-N-B. On the road from M to N, one car takes 7 minutes and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. Assume that any car taking the A-M-N-B route travels the A-M portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-M-B route, and the N-B portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-N-B route. How many cars would the police department order to take the A-M-N-B route so that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order while the other cars follow the order? (Assume that the police department would never order all the cars to take the same route.)

Type in your answer (TITA). No negative mark for a wrong answer.

Answer and solution

Answer: 2

Try 1 car on A-M-B, 2 on A-M-N-B and 1 on A-N-B. Then A-M carries 3 cars (6+6=126 + 6 = 12 minutes), M-B 1 car (20), M-N 2 cars (8), A-N 1 car (20) and N-B 3 cars (12). A-M-B takes 12+20=3212 + 20 = 32, A-M-N-B takes 12+8+12=3212 + 8 + 12 = 32 and A-N-B takes 20+12=3220 + 12 = 32 minutes. No car gains by switching alone: the A-M-B car would take 36 on either other route; an A-M-N-B car would take 32.9 on A-M-B or 33 on A-N-B; the A-N-B car would take 35.9 on A-M-B or 36 on A-M-N-B. So this order is stable. Other orders are not. From the old 2–2 split (29.9 and 30 minutes), a car can switch to A-M-N-B and take 9+7+12=289 + 7 + 12 = 28. With 2 on A-M-B, 1 on A-M-N-B and 1 on A-N-B, an A-M-B car takes 32.9 and can switch to A-M-N-B for 32. Checking every order that does not send all four cars the same way, only this one is stable. So the police order 2 cars onto A-M-N-B. The answer is 2.

Q66MCQNetworks & Routes

A new one-way road is built from M to N. Each car now has three possible routes to travel from A to B: A-M-B, A-N-B and A-M-N-B. On the road from M to N, one car takes 7 minutes and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. Assume that any car taking the A-M-N-B route travels the A-M portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-M-B route, and the N-B portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-N-B route. If all the cars follow the police order, what is the minimum travel time (in minutes) from A to B? (Assume that the police department would never order all the cars to take the same route.)
  1. 26
  2. 32
  3. 29.9
  4. 30
Answer and solution

Answer: (B) 32

With the new road, the stable police order is 1 car on A-M-B, 2 on A-M-N-B and 1 on A-N-B; any single car that switches would take between 32.9 and 36 minutes. In this order A-M carries 3 cars (12 minutes), M-B 1 car (20), M-N 2 cars (8), A-N 1 car (20) and N-B 3 cars (12). A-M-B takes 12+20=3212 + 20 = 32, A-M-N-B takes 12+8+12=3212 + 8 + 12 = 32 and A-N-B takes 20+12=3220 + 12 = 32 minutes. Every car takes 32 minutes, so the minimum travel time is 32. Options C (29.9) and D (30) are the times of the 2–2 split used before the new road. That split is no longer stable: a car can switch to A-M-N-B and take 9+7+12=289 + 7 + 12 = 28 minutes. Option A (26) is the time of a car alone on a route, which the stable order gives no one. Hence, option B (32).